Nursing 613- Complex Physiology Final Examination, Spring 1998

1. Which of the following statements is Not correct for Bulimia Nervosa

2. At the nursing health center, a routine CBC for a 3-year-old child reveals a hemoglobin value of 10.6 g/dl (normal range: 11-16 g/dl). To help validate the suspected nursing diagnosis of nutrition alteration; less than body requirements, what additional assessment data are needed:

3. Which test is used to detect the presence of antibodies in crossmatching blood for infusions?

4. The results of lab tests would you expect to see for patient with Bulimia Nervosa are:

5. Which of the following statement regarding "Direct Coombs test" is correct?

6. Which of the following laboratory tests support a diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

7. Idiopathic thrombocytopia purpura in adults is an ________ (autoimmune, acquired) disease that causes ____________ (decreased , increased) platelets.

8. Which of the following statements is Not correct regarding hepatitis D virus?

9. Diverticulosis is a descriptive term that indicates the presence of

10. When the oxygen concentration is low, which of following events occurs at tissue site.

11. Obstructive liver disease blocks the flow of bile, which inhibits:

12. Type O blood is referred to as the universal donor because it:

13. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is elevated in conditions of:

14. Arrange in order the following sequence of events that occur in clot formation. (1) fibrin gel to fibrin clot; (2) thrombin activates fibrinogen to fibrin; (3) platelets adhere to broken protein fragments; (4) factor III release activating intrinsic system

15. Multiple myeloma is a neoplasm of plasma cells that causes abnormalities such as:

16. Match the following terms with the definitions below. Use each answer only once. Lymphangitis Brawny edema Lymphadenitis Lymphedema 1. lymph node inflammation 2. edema from lymphatic obstruction 3. nonpitting edema 4. inflammation of lymph vessels caused by bacteria

17. Continuous excitement of the myocardium by normal or abnormal paths is known as:

18. The purpose of phlebography is to:

19. What factors increase afterload

20. Chemical thrombophlebitis may result from venous irritation due to:

21. Which of the following sets of two factors most directly causes an increase in afterload?

22. Venous inflammation or trauma may cause thrombosis due to:

23. Which is the accurate sequence of color changes in the fingers of a person with Raynaud'sdisease?

24. Clinical manifestations of an abdominal aortic aneurysm may be:

25. Atherosclerosis of the renal artery would cause hypertension due to the:

26. Which of the following is present after a myocardial infarction:

27. Dyspnea on exertion can be an indicator of:

28. Which of the following enzymes is most reflective of myocardial damage:

29. Pheochromocytoma causes secondary hypertension due to:

30. The diagnosis of infective endocarditis is based upon:

31. Activation of the renin-angiotensin and sympathetic nervous systems are manifestations of the:

32. Cardiogenic shock will cause metabolic acidosis due to:

33. In chronic bronchitis, hyperplasia and hypertrophy of mucus-producing cells

34. Pco2=40, pH=7.5 indicates that this patient has

35. The pulmonary edema of adult respiratory distress syndrome leads to

36. Diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is difficult. The definitive test for diagnosis of PE is considered to by

37. Croup syndrome varying degrees of laryngeal obstruction resulting from

38. Cystic fibrosis is an inherited disease of the __________ (exocrine, endocrine) glands resulting in pancreatic enzyme deficiency.

39. In idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome surfactant deficiency initially leads to:

40. Polycythemia develops in patients with COPD due to:

41. An individual has an elevated blood level of urea and creatinine because of the complete calculi blockage of one ureter. This is referred to as

42. Enlarged prostate gland may cause:

43. Which of the following statements about Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is correct?

44. Neurogenic bladder is a functional urinary tract obstruction caused by

45. Increases risk of kidney stones

46. Stones located in the renal pelvis and upper part of ureter produce pain in:

47. Detectable abnormalities for a person with renal insufficiency include:

48. Thirst Mechanism is stimulated by

49. Which set of the following laboratory results is normal?

50. Ms. Lee complains of pain, vomiting, abdominal swelling, alterations in bowel habits, feeling of blowed. As an advanced nurse, your immediate action is to:

51. Chlamydia infections in a newborn may result in:

52. The alkaline fluid secreted into the urethra during emission comes from the:

53. An infected pregnant woman places the fetus at risk for developing syphilis because the:

54. A condition common in females who were exposed to DES in utero is:

55. Which of the following biochemical markers is valuable in the diagnosis and staging of testicular tumors?

56. The term mittelschmerz refers to:

57. Conception usually occurs in the:

58. Which test involves the injection of carbon dioxide through a cannula into the uterus to determine the patency of fallopian tubes?

59. Prostaglandins, especially PGE2, have been theorized as the cause of primary dysmenorrhea because they:

60. Which of statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is NOT correct?

61. Laboratory findings of patient with Pregnancy induced hypertension show:

62. Up to 85% of MIs are believed to be caused by:

63. Basic pathogenesis of infective endocarditis may involve:

64. Increased peristalsis can cause a portion of the stomach to protrude into the diaphragm, a condition called:

65. Crohn's disease is an inflammatory disease that mainly involves the:

66. A condition caused by congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells to the rectosigmoid is called:

67. Dilated venous sacs protruding into the anal and rectal canals are:

68. Obstruction of the bowel occurs more frequently with carcinoma of the colon on the:

69. The initiating event of CHF is primary due to myocyte damage or overload causing increased pressure or volume. Contributing factors are

70. Bilirubin is excreted from the body only in the form of:

71. An increased conjugated bilirubin and an normal unconjugated bilirubin in the presence of dark urine and light stools are indicative of:

72. Hepatocellular failure caused increased serum levels of __________ bilirubin, while extrahepatic obstruction causes increased serum levels of __________ bilirubin.

73. Portal hypertension develops because of:

74. Hepatic encephalopathy occurs when the liver is unable to:

75. The clinical manifestations of hepatitis B usually occur how long after exposure:

76. Cellular deviation of Non-Hodgkin Disease occurs in

77. The neurotransmitters that inhibit and excite smooth muscles are:

78. Peristalsis is inhibited by:

79. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is more developed in __________ muscle, and the T tubules are 5 times larger in __________ muscle.

80. Rigor mortis is a state of muscular contraction occurring 2-4 hours after death and is due to the:

81. Parathyroid secretion causes:

82. Increased calcitonin secretion form the thyroid gland causes:

83. Throughout the premenopausal period, estrogen:

84. Increased activity and weight bearing for a newly fractured immobilized leg will result in:

85. Tendons heal slowly because:

86. Anterior compartment syndrome may result in limb paralysis, deformity, or gangrene and loss of the limb, caused by:

87. Match the terms below. Use each choice only once. rickets ------ osteomyelitis ------ scoliosis ------ avascular necrosis ------_______ rheumatoid arthritis ----- 1. bone softens and dies due to inadequate blood supply 2. childhood disease caused by lack of vitamin D 3. joint destruction caused by chronic inflammation with effusion 4. infection of the bone and marrow 5. lateral curvature of the spine

88. Mr. Martino is a quadriplegic recently transferred from the spinal cord injury rehabilitation unit to med/surg for treatment of a respiratory infection. Reminding him that he'd been catheterized just two hours earlier, the nurse explains that she'll be in as soon as she's finished with another patient. While waiting for the nurse, Mr. Martino gets progressively more anxious. He's developing a severe headache. Which of the following situations is NOTa possible cause?

89. Nephretic Syndrome is NOT associated with

90. Hormone levels of persons with persistent anovualation are:

91. Symptoms of anvualation:

92. Loop resection for cervical cancer is a technique by

93. The development of airway hyperresponsiveness in Asthma involves

94. Patients with Bronchitis have

95. Lab results for patients with life-threatening Asthma are:

96. Lab results for Croup syndrome are:

97. Neuropeptide substance P

98. Patients on steroid have

99. Asthma patients have

100. Suggestions for these examination questions: ---------------------------------------------------------------------------

Examination Questions for Fall 1997 1. Infant has severe diarrhea and fever, and you suspect a nursing diagnosis of fluid volume deficit. Which components of the CBC are elevated?

2. At the nursing health center, a routine CBC for a 3-year-old child reveals a hemoglobin value of 10.6 g/dl (normal range: 11-16 g/dl). To help validate the suspected nursing diagnosis of nutrition alteration; less than body requirements, what additional assessment data are needed:

3. Which test is used to detect the presence of antibodies in crossmatching blood for infusions?

4. Your patient receives iron replacement to correct the problem of iron deficiency anemia. To evaluate the response to the therapy, what changes in the red cell indices should occur?

5. Which of the following statement regarding "Direct Coombs test" is correct?

6. Which of the following laboratory tests support a diagnosis of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

7. Idiopathic thrombocytopia purpura is an ________ (autoimmune, acquired) disease that causes ____________ (decreased , increased) platelets.

8. Lymph node regions for Stage III Non-Hodgkin's Disease involve

9. The most common cause of hemophilia A is a deficiency in:

10. When the oxygen concentration is low:

11. Obstructive liver disease blocks the flow of bile, which inhibits:

12. Type O blood is referred to as the universal donor because it:

13. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is elevated in conditions of:

14. Arrange in order the following sequence of events that occur in clot formation.

15. Multiple myeloma is a neoplasm of plasma cells that causes abnormalities such as:

16. Match the following terms with the definitions below. Use each answer only once. Lymphangitis Brawny edema Lymphadenitis Lymphedema

17. Continuous excitement of the myocardium by normal or abnormal paths is known as:

18. The purpose of phlebography is to:

19. Afterload refers to:

20. Chemical thrombophlebitis may result from venous irritation due to:

21. Which of the following sets of two factors most directly causes an increase in afterload?

22. Venous inflammation or trauma may cause thrombosis due to:

23. Which is the accurate sequence of color changes in the fingers of a person with Raynaud'sdisease?

24. Clinical manifestations of an abdominal aortic aneurysm may be:

25. Atherosclerosis of the renal artery would cause hypertension due to the:

26. Which of the following is present after a myocardial infarction:

27. Dyspnea on exertion can be an indicator of:

28. Which of the following enzymes is most reflective of myocardial damage:

29. Pheochromocytoma causes secondary hypertension due to:

30. The diagnosis of infective endocarditis is based upon:

31. Activation of the renin-angiotensin and sympathetic nervous systems are manifestations of the:

32. Cardiogenic shock will cause metabolic acidosis due to:

33. In chronic bronchitis, hyperplasia and hypertrophy of mucus-producing cells

34. Pco2=40, pH=7.5 indicates that this patient has

35. The pulmonary edema of adult respiratory distress syndrome leads to

36. Diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is difficult. The definitive test for diagnosis of PE is considered to by

37. Croup syndrome varying degrees of laryngeal obstruction resulting from

38. What clinical manifestations a patient with spinal cord injury at C7 will have

39. In idiopathic respiratory distress syndrome surfactant deficiency promotes:

40. Polycythemia develops in patients with COPD due to:

41. An individual has an elevated blood level of urea and creatinine because of the complete calculi blockage of one ureter. This is referred to as

42. Enlarged prostate gland may cause:

43. Which of the following statements about Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF) is correct?

44. Neurogenic bladder is a functional urinary tract obstruction caused by

45. Increases risk of kidney stones

46. Stones located in the renal pelvis and upper part of ureter produce pain in:

47. Detectable abnormalities for a person with renal insufficiency include:

48. Thirst Mechanism is stimulated by

49. Which set of the following laboratory results for kidney is normal?

50. Ms. Lee complains of pain, vomiting, abdominal swelling, alterations in bowel habits, feeling of blowed. As an advanced nurse, your immediate action is to:

51. Chlamydia infections in a newborn may result in:

52. The alkaline fluid secreted into the urethra during emission comes from the:

53. An infected pregnant woman places the fetus at risk for developing syphilis because the:

54. A condition common in females who were exposed to DES in utero is:

55. Which of the following biochemical markers is valuable in the diagnosis and staging of testicular tumors?

56. A patient had treatment for Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia last week. On the follow-up visit, she complains of watery brown discharge. Your explanation is

57. Types 16, 18, 31, & 35 are high risk HPV's because

58. Which test involves the injection of carbon dioxide through a cannula into the uterus to determine the patency of fallopian tubes?

59. Prostaglandins, especially PGE2, have been theorized as the cause of primary dysmenorrhea because they:

60. Which of statements regarding pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is NOT correct?

61. Laboratory findings of patient with Pregnancy induced hypertension show:

62. Up to 85% of MIs are believed to be caused by:

63. Basic pathogenesis of infective endocarditis may involve:

64. There is no reflex when you stroke patient's medial aspect of the thigh. Patient may have

65. Crohn's disease is an inflammatory disease that mainly involves the:

66. A condition caused by congenital absence of parasympathetic ganglion cells to the rectosigmoid is called:

67. Dilated venous sacs protruding into the anal and rectal canals are:

68. Obstruction of the bowel occurs more frequently with carcinoma of the colon on the:

69. The initiating event of CHF is primary due to myocyte damage or overload causing increased pressure or volume. Contributing factors are:

70. Bilirubin is excreted from the body only in the form of:

71. An increased conjugated bilirubin and an normal unconjugated bilirubin in the presence of dark urine and light stools are indicative of:

72. Hepatocellular failure caused increased serum levels of __________ bilirubin, while extrahepatic obstruction causes increased serum levels of __________ bilirubin.

73. Portal hypertension develops because of:

74. Hepatic encephalopathy occurs when the liver is unable to:

75. The hormone levels for Persistent Anovulation are

76. Cellular deviation of Non-Hodgkin Disease occurs in

77. The neurotransmitters that inhibit and excite smooth muscles are:

78. Risk factors for developing Endometrial Cancer include

79. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is more developed in __________ muscle, and the T tubules are 5 times larger in __________ muscle.

80. Rigor mortis is a state of muscular contraction occurring 2-4 hours after death and is due to the:

81. Parathyroid secretion causes: 82. Increased calcitonin secretion form the thyroid gland causes:

83. Throughout the premenopausal period, estrogen:

84. Increased activity and weight bearing for a fractured immobilized leg will result in:

85. Tendons heal slowly because:

86. Anterior compartment syndrome may result in limb paralysis, deformity, or gangrene and loss of the limb, caused by:

87. Match the terms below. Use each choice only once. rickets ------ osteomyelitis ------ scoliosis ------ avascular necrosis ------_______ rheumatoid arthritis -----

The process of surgical wound healing:

Stage 1: inflammation (0 to 4 days)

0 to 2 hours-------Events: Q88__________ Cells: Q89___________

0 to 4 days -------Events: Q90__________ Cells: Q91___________

Stage 2: Proliferation (2 to 22 days)

1 to 4 days---------Events: Q92--------------- Cells: Q93_----------

-----

2 to 7 days---------Events: Q 94--------------- Cells: Q 95 - -------------

2 to 22 days-------Events: Q 96--------------- Cells: Q 97 ---------- ----

2 to 20 days ----- Events: Q 98--------------- Cells: Q 99-- -------------

Stage 3: Maturation (21 days to 2 years) Cells: Q 100-------------- -