CHAPTER TWELVE STUDY
GUIDE
Choose the answer that is most accurate.
1. The
concept of "personality" most clearly embodies the notion of:
A) moral
integrity.
B) self-consciousness.
C) temporal
consistency.
D) self-actualization.
E) gender
identity.
2. Freud
became interested in unconscious personality dynamics when he noticed that
certain patients' symptoms:
A) resulted
from the physical abuse they received from their parents during childhood.
B) resulted
from the loss of an internal locus of control.
C) could
not be removed by means of hypnosis.
D) could
not be explained readily in terms of neurological impairments.
3. Freud
observed that certain symptoms of illness were relieved when patients talked
freely about their past. This led Freud to suspect that these symptoms resulted
from:
A) genetic
defects.
B) an
inferiority complex.
C) psychological
processes.
D) an
internal locus of control.
E) reciprocal
determinism.
4. The
use of free association is central to the process of:
A) identification.
B) self-actualization.
C) psychoanalysis.
D) reciprocal
determinism.
E) unconditional
positive regard.
5. Which
of the following techniques did Freud use to discover the latent content of his
patients' dreams?
A) fixation
B) factor
analysis
C) projective
testing
D) free
association
E) the
Barnum effect
6. A
psychotherapist instructs Dane to relax, close his eyes, and state aloud
whatever thoughts come to mind no matter how trivial or absurd. The therapist
is using a technique known as:
A) fixation.
B) free
association.
C) reaction
formation.
D) hypnosis.
E) projection.
7. Forgotten
memories that we can easily recall were said by Freud to be:
A) displaced.
B) projected.
C) preconscious.
D) fixated.
E) unconscious.
8. According
to Freud, the unconscious is:
A) the
part of human personality that lacks a sense of right and wrong.
B) the
thoughts, wishes, feelings, and memories, of which we are largely unaware.
C) a
set of universal concepts acquired by all humans from our common past.
D) a
reservoir of deeply repressed memories that does not affect behavior.
E) all
the above.
9. Freud
believed that ________ are the "royal road to the unconscious."
A) projective
tests
B) dreams
C) erogenous
zones
D) psychosexual
stages
E) hypnotic
trances
10. According
to psychoanalytic theory, the part of the personality that strives for
immediate gratification of basic drives is the:
A) id.
B) ego.
C) superego.
D) collective
unconscious.
11. When
2-year-old Aaron was told he would get no dessert until he finished the food on
his plate, he threw his plate on the floor in a temper tantrum. Freud would
have suggested that Aaron was unable to resist the demands of his:
A) superego.
B) collective
unconscious.
C) ego.
D) id.
E) Oedipus
complex.
12. Ego
is to id as ________ is to ________.
A) personality;
collective unconscious
B) morality;
biology
C) life
instinct; death instinct
D) reality
principle; pleasure principle
E) self-esteem;
self-serving bias
13. When
16-year-old Hafez received a large inheritance from his grandfather, he was
tempted to purchase an expensive new car. He decided, instead, to deposit all
the money in a savings account for his college education. Hafez shows signs of
a:
A) strong
self-serving bias.
B) weak
id.
C) strong
collective unconscious.
D) strong
ego.
E) strong
external locus of control.
14. According
to Freud, the personality system that represents our sense of right and wrong
and our ideal standards is the:
A) collective
unconscious.
B) ego.
C) self-concept.
D) id.
E) superego.
15. Margo
experiences feelings of revulsion at the prospect of watching a pornographic
video. Freud would have attributed these feelings to Margo's:
A) ego.
B) id.
C) superego.
D) collective
unconscious.
16. No
matter how long and hard Oprah studies, she always feels she hasn't studied as
much as she should have. A Freudian psychologist would suggest that Oprah shows
signs of a:
A) weak
id.
B) weak
ego.
C) weak
superego.
D) strong
id.
E) strong
superego.
17. Brice
wants to be a loving husband but at the same time wants to express his disgust
for some of his wife's habits. According to Freud, Brice's ________ might
enable him to partially satisfy both desires.
A) actualized
self
B) collective
unconscious
C) superego
D) Oedipus
complex
E) ego
18. During
the early psychosexual stages, the id derives pleasure from distinct:
A) gender
identities.
B) defense
mechanisms.
C) erogenous
zones.
D) identifications.
E) complexes.
19. Two-year-old
Damien frequently refuses to obey his parents because he derives immense
pleasure from demonstrating his independence. Freud would have suggested that
Damien is going through the ________ stage of development.
A) phallic
B) anal
C) genital
D) latency
E) oral
20. According
to Freud, boys are most likely to experience the Oedipus complex during the
________ stage.
A) anal
B) phallic
C) oral
D) latency
21. According
to psychoanalytic theory, boys' fear of castration is most closely associated
with:
A) an
oral fixation.
B) free
association.
C) learned
helplessness.
D) the
Oedipus complex.
E) the
genital stage.
22. One
night after he heard his parents arguing, 4-year-old Cho had a vivid dream in
which he saved his mother from being bitten by a large snake. A psychoanalyst
would most likely suspect that Cho's dream reflects a(n):
A) oral
fixation.
B) reaction
formation.
C) self-serving
bias.
D) Oedipus
complex.
E) external
locus of control.
23. Freud
suggested that the process of identification is most directly responsible for
the development of:
A) the
Oedipus complex.
B) free
association.
C) the
superego.
D) erogenous
zones.
E) an
inferiority complex.
24. Which
theory would most likely predict that boys raised without a father figure will
have difficulty developing a strongly masculine gender identity?
A) Allport's
trait theory
B) Maslow's
humanistic theory
C) Bandura's
social-cognitive theory
D) Freud's
psychoanalytic theory
25. According
to Freud, during the period between age 6 and puberty children:
A) experience
intense sexual feelings for peers of both sexes.
B) experience
very little sexual interest.
C) direct
their sexual interests toward their opposite-sex parent.
D) are
ambivalent about their own sexual identity.
26. Angus
spends a good deal of time bragging about his numerous sexual exploits. Freud
would have suggested that Angus is fixated at the ________ stage.
A) genital
B) oral
C) latency
D) phallic
E) anal
27. According
to Freud, fixation refers to a difficulty in the process of:
A) free
association.
B) psychosexual
development.
C) projective
testing.
D) reaction
formation.
E) hypnosis.
28. Saleem
seeks sexual pleasure by means of solitary masturbation rather than through
sexual interaction with his wife. Freud would have suggested that this
illustrates a(n):
A) rationalization.
B) projection.
C) inferiority
complex.
D) reaction
formation.
E) fixation.
29. Freud
suggested that orally fixated adults are especially likely to exhibit:
A) passive
dependence.
B) an
inferiority complex.
C) an
Electra complex.
D) compulsive
neatness.
E) messiness
and disorganization.
30. Arjean
is terribly gullible and accepts as true just about anything she is told.
According to the psychoanalytic perspective, Arjean is most likely fixated at
the ________ stage.
A) genital
B) phallic
C) anal
D) oral
E) latency
31. Mr.
Pallini, a high school teacher, washes the chalkboard and realigns student
desks in precise rows before every class. According to the psychoanalytic
perspective, Mr. Pallini is most likely fixated at the ________ stage.
A) phallic
B) oral
C) latency
D) genital
E) anal
32. According
to Freud, defense mechanisms are used by the:
A) id
to defend against the accusations and guilt feelings produced by the superego.
B) ego
to prevent threatening impulses from being consciously recognized.
C) superego
to prevent expression of sexual and aggressive drives.
D) id,
ego, and superego in a repetitive sequence of internal conflicts.
33. When
she was 8 years old, Tina was sexually abused by her uncle. At 14, Tina felt
uncomfortable whenever she saw this uncle but was unable to understand why she
felt this way. A psychoanalyst would be most likely to suggest that Tina is
using the defense mechanism of:
A) repression.
B) reaction
formation.
C) rationalization.
D) regression.
E) displacement.
34. Freud
suggested that slips of the tongue illustrate an incomplete:
A) fixation.
B) displacement.
C) rationalization.
D) projection.
E) repression.
35. An
excessive fixation is most likely to contribute to:
A) reaction
formation.
B) regression.
C) projection.
D) an
Electra complex.
E) displacement.
36. Four-year-old
Nathan has not wet his bed for over a year. However, he starts bed-wetting
again soon after his sister is born. Nathan's behavior best illustrates:
A) reaction
formation.
B) projection.
C) regression.
D) displacement.
E) repression.
37. Reaction
formation refers to the process by which people:
A) disguise
unacceptable unconscious impulses by attributing them to others.
B) consciously
express feelings that are the opposite of unacceptable unconscious impulses.
C) retreat
to behavior patterns characteristic of an earlier stage of development.
D) offer
self-justifying explanations in place of the real but unacceptable unconscious
reasons for action.
38. Parents
who disguise hostility toward their children by becoming overly protective of
them are very likely using the defense mechanism of:
A) projection.
B) regression.
C) rationalization.
D) reaction
formation.
E) displacement.
39. The
defense mechanism by which people disguise threatening impulses by attributing
them to others is called:
A) projection.
B) displacement.
C) fixation.
D) reaction
formation.
E) repression.
40. Abdul
mistakenly believes that his classmates at school are unusually hostile. In
fact, Abdul is the most quarrelsome and aggressive child in the school.
According to psychoanalytic theory, Abdul's belief that his classmates are
hostile is a:
A) regression.
B) projection.
C) fixation.
D) reaction
formation.
41. Mrs.
Bailey, who is white and unconsciously in favor of racial segregation, tells
her friends that most Blacks prefer to live in residential neighborhoods
inhabited predominantly by Blacks. According to psychoanalytic theory, Mrs.
Bailey best illustrates:
A) sublimation.
B) reaction
formation.
C) projection.
D) displacement.
E) regression.
42. The
defense mechanism in which self-justifying explanations replace the real,
unconscious reasons for actions is:
A) projection.
B) reaction
formation.
C) repression.
D) rationalization.
E) displacement.
43. Lilli
Beth is unconsciously fearful that her husband is a better cook than she.
Recently, she refused his offer to prepare dinner because, said she, "You
could better spend the time playing with our kids." Lilli Beth's comment
best illustrates:
A) regression.
B) projection.
C) rationalization.
D) displacement.
E) reaction
formation.
44. While
Professor DiGennaro was going through a painful divorce, he tended to create
unnecessarily difficult tests and gave his students unusually low grades. A
psychoanalyst would be most likely to view the professor's treatment of
students as an example of:
A) reaction
formation.
B) rationalization.
C) displacement.
D) projection.
E) regression.
45. The
defense mechanism by which people rechannel their unacceptable impulses into
socially approved activities is:
A) displacement.
B) repression.
C) reaction
formation.
D) sublimation.
E) projection.
46. Freud
suggested that Leonardo da Vinci's paintings of Madonnas could be traced back
to his desire for intimacy with his own mother. According to Freud, da Vinci's
artistry provides an example of:
A) displacement.
B) projection.
C) sublimation.
D) regression.
E) reaction
formation.
47. Projective
tests are most closely associated with the ________ perspective.
A) social-cognitive
B) psychoanalytic
C) humanistic
D) trait
48. Henry
Murray found that children's perceptions of photographs were biased by their
previous participation in a frightening game. Their perceptual reactions most
clearly highlighted the potential value of:
A) projective
tests.
B) free
association.
C) unconditional
positive regard.
D) reciprocal
determinism.
E) an
internal locus of control.
49. Mr.
Dutoit was asked by his psychotherapist to look at some ambiguous pictures and
make up a story about each. Mr. Dutoit was most likely taking the:
A) TAT.
B) Myers-Briggs
Type Indicator.
C) MMPI-2.
D) Personal
Orientation Inventory.
E) Rorschach
test.
50. The
major reason for the unreliability of the Rorschach inkblot test is the fact
that:
A) the
test inhibits individuals from communicating honestly in clinical interviews.
B) psychologists
often do not agree on how to score the results of this test.
C) the
test does not discriminate effectively between those who are suicidal and those
who are not.
D) the
test can be used effectively only with individuals who are severely
maladjusted.
51. Neo-Freudian
personality theorists were most likely to disagree with Freud about the
importance of:
A) the
unconscious dynamics underlying behavior.
B) childhood
sexual instincts.
C) anxiety
and defense mechanisms.
D) distinguishing
between id, ego, and superego.
52. Hasina
was an abused child; as an adult, she is homeless and squanders any money she
can find on alcohol. Alfred Adler would have suggested that Hasina suffers
from:
A) an
Electra complex.
B) role
confusion.
C) an
oral fixation.
D) feelings
of inferiority.
E) the
Barnum effect.
53. Karen
Horney, a prominent neo-Freudian, disputed Freud's assumption that women:
A) have
weak superegos.
B) suffer
an Electra complex.
C) often
experience learned helplessness.
D) have
stronger sexual instincts than men.
E) never
experience a phallic stage of development.
54. Which
neo-Freudian theorist emphasized the influence of the collective unconscious in
personality development?
A) Jung
B) Adler
C) Horney
D) Maslow
E) Bandura
55. Contemporary
psychodynamic theorists are most likely to emphasize the importance of:
A) sexual
instincts.
B) free
association.
C) inner
conflict.
D) the
collective unconscious.
56. Contemporary
psychologists are least likely to agree with Freud's belief that:
A) conscience
and gender identity form during the process of resolving the Oedipus complex.
B) conscious
awareness of our own mental processes is very limited.
C) memories
are often distorted and incomplete.
D) defense
mechanisms help protect individuals from anxiety.
57. Freud
emphasized that emotional healing is associated with the:
A) fixation
of repressed sexual desires.
B) projection
of repressed fears.
C) recovery
of repressed memories.
D) displacement
of repressed hostilities.
58. Survivors'
memories of Nazi death camp experiences most clearly challenge Freud's concept
of:
A) fixation.
B) repression.
C) the
Oedipus complex.
D) motivational
conflict.
E) learned
helplessness.
59. Compared
with Freud, contemporary research psychologists are less likely to think of
unconscious mental dynamics as involving:
A) parallel
processing.
B) motivational
conflict.
C) implicit
memory.
D) right
hemisphere activity.
60. People
who cheat on their taxes are especially likely to think many others do as well.
This false consensus effect is most similar to Freud's concept of:
A) displacement.
B) reaction
formation.
C) sublimation.
D) projection.
E) fixation.
61. Freud's
theory of personality has been criticized because it:
A) underestimates
the importance of biological contributions to personality development.
B) is
contradicted by recent research demonstrating the human capacity for
destructive behavior.
C) is
overly reliant upon observations derived from Freud's use of projective tests.
D) offers
few testable predictions that allow one to determine its validity.
62. Freud
is to the psychoanalytic perspective as Allport is to the ________ perspective.
A) behavioral
B) humanistic
C) trait
D) social-cognitive
63. Characteristic
patterns of behavior and motivation are called:
A) aptitudes.
B) fixations.
C) projections.
D) traits.
64. Trait
theorists are more concerned with ________ personality than ________ it.
A) predicting;
assessing
B) describing;
explaining
C) changing;
analyzing
D) interpreting;
observing
65. The
Myers-Briggs Type Indicator classifies people according to personality types
identified by:
A) Gordon
Allport.
B) Carl
Jung.
C) Albert
Bandura.
D) Carl
Rogers.
E) Abraham
Maslow.
66. Factor
analysis has been used to identify the most basic:
A) self-serving
biases.
B) defense
mechanisms.
C) personality
traits.
D) psychosexual
stages.
67. Natasha
is quiet, pessimistic, anxious, and moody. In terms of the Eysencks' basic
personality dimensions she would be classified as:
A) unstable-introverted.
B) internal-impulsive.
C) manic-depressive.
D) external-dependent.
E) passive-aggressive.
68. The
Big Five trait dimensions were identified by means of:
A) the
MMPI.
B) free
association.
C) projective
tests.
D) factor
analysis.
E) clinical
intuition.
69. A
person who is careless and disorganized most clearly ranks low on the Big Five
trait dimension known as:
A) emotional
stability.
B) extraversion.
C) openness.
D) agreeableness.
E) conscientiousness.
70. Which
of the following Big Five trait dimensions is most closely related to one's
level of creativity?
A) extraversion
B) openness
C) emotional
stability
D) agreeableness
71. Morning
types are to evening types as ________ is to ________.
A) conscientiousness;
extraversion
B) agreeableness;
openness
C) extraversion;
conscientiousness
D) openness;
agreeableness
72. Research
on individual differences in children's temperament indicates that the trait of
shyness most clearly results from:
A) a
weak superego.
B) genetic
predispositions.
C) an
internal locus of control.
D) unresolved
conflicts.
E) fixation
and regression.
73. A
personality inventory that utilizes only those items that have been shown to
differentiate particular groups of people is called a(n) ________ test.
A) factor
analytic
B) multiphasic
C) aptitude
D) projective
E) empirically
derived
74. Which
of the following tests was empirically derived?
A) TAT
B) Rorschach
Inkblot Test
C) MMPI-2
D) Myers-Briggs
Type Indicator
75. Dr.
Zytowics wants to assess the extent to which a client is suffering from
depression, delusions, and other symptoms of psychological disorder. Which
personality inventory would be most helpful for this purpose?
A) MMPI-2
B) Rorschach
C) TAT
D) Myers-Briggs
Type Indicator
76. Personality
inventories typically gather information by means of:
A) projection.
B) factor
analysis.
C) free
association.
D) self-reports.
E) random
selection.
77. Which
theorists have been most directly criticized for underestimating the
variability of behavior from situation to situation?
A) social-cognitive
B) psychoanalytic
C) humanistic
D) trait
78. Hartshorne
and May gave thousands of children opportunities to lie, cheat, and steal while
at home, at school, and at play. Results of this research, according to Walter
Mischel, should make us more cautious about emphasizing:
A) personality
traits.
B) self-efficacy.
C) reciprocal
determinism.
D) defense
mechanisms.
E) unconditional
positive regard.
79. Glenn
is usually animated and talkative when he is with his girlfriend, but he is
often quiet and reserved at home. He actively participates in many classroom
discussions but frequently seems reluctant to talk with friends at the campus
coffee shop. According to Walter Mischel, Glenn's behavior should lead us to
question the importance of:
A) personality
traits.
B) unconditional
positive regard.
C) reciprocal
determinism.
D) defense
mechanisms.
E) self-efficacy.
80. In
rejecting claims that personality trait measures fail to predict behavior
effectively, Seymour Epstein emphasized the importance of:
A) multiple
behavior assessments.
B) reciprocal
determinism.
C) factor
analysis.
D) projective
tests.
81. The
tendency to accept favorable descriptions of one's personality that could
really be applied to almost anyone is known as:
A) the
halo effect.
B) the
Barnum effect.
C) projection.
D) factor
analysis.
E) unconditional
positive regard.
82. Frida
was informed by a professional palm reader: "You generally communicate
openly with others, but you have certain dark secrets that even your closest
friends could never guess." The fact that Frida was impressed by the palm
reader's insight into her personality best illustrates:
A) unconditional
positive regard.
B) the
Barnum effect.
C) the
Electra complex.
D) reciprocal
determinism.
E) attributional
style.
83. People's
scores on a test of extraversion are likely to be most strongly correlated with
the number of social conversations they initiate during the course of a single:
A) hour.
B) day.
C) week.
D) month.
84. An
individual's responses to a personality inventory would be most useful for
accurately predicting that person's behavior ________ that involve(s) highly
________ social expectations or roles.
A) in
a single situation; ambiguous
B) in
a single situation; unambiguous
C) across
a wide variety of situations; ambiguous
D) across
a wide variety of situations; unambiguous
85. The
humanistic perspective emphasizes the importance of:
A) free
association.
B) self-determination.
C) reciprocal
determinism.
D) personality
inventories.
E) projective
tests.
86. Abraham
Maslow studied the lives of Abraham Lincoln, Thomas Jefferson, and Eleanor
Roosevelt in order to understand the nature of:
A) reciprocal
determinism.
B) unconditional
positive regard.
C) self-actualization.
D) personality
traits.
87. Self-actualized
people, as described by Maslow, are least likely to be highly:
A) compassionate.
B) religious.
C) conforming.
D) self-accepting.
88. Which
theorist emphasized that personal growth is promoted by interactions with
others who are genuine, accepting, and empathic?
A) Allport
B) Jung
C) Rogers
D) Freud
E) Bandura
89. Mrs.
Scherer believes that parents should accept and try to understand their
children's feelings and should honestly disclose their own inner feelings to
their children. Her approach to parent-child interaction was most explicitly
recommended by:
A) Bandura.
B) Allport.
C) Freud.
D) Rogers.
E) Jung.
90. Carl
Rogers suggested that the ________ is a central feature of personality.
A) collective
unconscious
B) Oedipus
complex
C) inferiority
complex
D) persona
E) self-concept
91. Carl
Rogers would have suggested that many of the defense mechanisms described by
Freud are used to minimize the perceived discrepancy between:
A) individualism
and collectivism.
B) the
collective unconscious and the personal unconscious.
C) the
actual self and the ideal self.
D) an
internal locus of control and an external locus of control.
92. Which
psychologists are most likely to criticize standardized personality tests for
failing to capture the unique subjective experience of the individual
personality?
A) psychoanalytic
theorists
B) trait
theorists
C) social-cognitive
theorists
D) humanistic
theorists
93. If
we are nervous about our personal appearance after adopting a new hairstyle, we
are likely to ________ the extent to which others notice our nervousness and we
are likely to ________ the extent to which they notice our new hair style.
A) overestimate;
underestimate
B) underestimate;
overestimate
C) overestimate;
overestimate
D) underestimate;
underestimate
94. Geraldo
studies diligently because he is haunted by an image of himself being unable to
gain employment after his college graduation. Geraldo's diligence best
illustrates the motivational impact of:
A) an
internal locus of control.
B) unconditioned
positive regard.
C) learned
helplessness.
D) possible
selves.
E) sublimation.
95. Individuals
with high self-esteem are more likely than those with low self-esteem to:
A) have
a strong ego.
B) experience
an external locus of control.
C) dismiss
flattering descriptions of themselves as untrue.
D) underestimate
the accuracy of their own beliefs.
E) associate
with people whose attitudes and personality are very similar to their own.
96. Self-esteem
is negatively correlated with:
A) personal
control.
B) self-serving
bias.
C) depression.
D) individualism.
E) extraversion.
97. A
person whose self-esteem is momentarily threatened is especially likely to:
A) demonstrate
an independence from social pressure to conform.
B) criticize
the shortcomings of others.
C) lack
a clear sense of gender identity.
D) experience
an internal locus of control.
E) be
motivated by a desire for self-actualization.
98. People
who are challenged by severe physical disabilities are likely to maintain
normal levels of self-esteem by:
A) displacing
their feelings of resentment.
B) developing
an external locus of control.
C) comparing
themselves with others who are similarly disabled.
D) accepting
more personal responsibility for their problems than for their accomplishments.
99. Jacinda
failed her last history midterm. Which of the following conclusions would be
most representative of a self-serving bias on Jacinda's part?
A) "I
really didn't prepare well enough for that test."
B) "I
wasn't concentrating very hard during the test."
C) "I
lack ability in history."
D) "I
think the test questions were ambiguous and confusing."
100. Athletes
often attribute their losses to bad officiating. This best illustrates:
A) an
Electra complex.
B) learned
helplessness.
C) repression.
D) self-serving
bias.
E) the
Barnum effect.
101. In
one survey, Americans were more optimistic that they themselves would go to
heaven than would either Michael Jordan or Bill Clinton. This best illustrates:
A) an
internal locus of control.
B) the
Barnum effect.
C) an
Electra complex.
D) sublimation.
E) self-serving
bias.
102. Research
on self-perception indicates that most people:
A) suffer
extensively from feelings of unrealistically low self-esteem.
B) feel
more personally responsible for their failures than for their successes.
C) view
themselves very favorably in comparison to most others.
D) underestimate
the accuracy of their beliefs and judgments.
E) are
unrealistically pessimistic about their personal future.
103. Although
Rolf frequently cheats on classroom tests, he justifies his behavior by
erroneously thinking that most other students cheat even more than he does. His
mistaken belief best illustrates:
A) reciprocal
determinism.
B) the
Barnum effect.
C) reaction
formation.
D) an
external locus of control.
E) self-serving
bias.
104. Which
of the following is most likely to contribute to raising one's self-esteem?
A) free
association
B) an
Electra complex
C) self-serving
bias
D) an
external locus of control
E) the
Barnum effect
105. A
collectivist culture is especially likely to emphasize the importance of:
A) social
responsibility.
B) personal
control.
C) self-actualization.
D) racial
diversity.
E) free
association.
106. Professor
Basna believes that her students' most important personal characteristics are
those that distinguish them as uniquely different from most other people. Her
attitude best illustrates one of the consequences of:
A) individualism.
B) self-serving
bias.
C) reciprocal
determinism.
D) reaction
formation.
E) the
Barnum effect.
107. Individualism
is most likely to be emphasized in:
A) Africa.
B) Asia.
C) India.
D) North
America.
108. American
university students are more likely than Japanese university students to
describe themselves in terms of their:
A) academic
abilities.
B) university
affiliation.
C) ethnic
background.
D) marital
status.
E) gender.
109. Japanese
students are more likely than American students to describe themselves in terms
of their:
A) physical
appearance.
B) social
identities.
C) political
ideology.
D) personality
traits.
110. A
willingness to switch jobs and move from one part of the country to another
best illustrates one of the consequences of:
A) reciprocal
determinism.
B) collectivism.
C) free
association.
D) learned
helplessness.
E) individualism.
111. When
Professor Hajar lived overseas for a year, he was very surprised at how much
respect he received from people simply because he was a retired college
professor. His sense of surprise suggests that he had not previously lived in a
culture that valued:
A) social
diversity.
B) self-actualization.
C) reciprocal
determinism.
D) individualism.
E) collectivism.
112. People
are somewhat more likely to demonstrate self-serving bias in a culture that
values:
A) individualism.
B) collectivism.
C) reciprocal
determinism.
D) conformity.
E) role
playing.
113. Individualism
is to collectivism as ________ is to ________.
A) personal
control; learned helplessness
B) displacement;
sublimation
C) independence;
interdependence
D) responsibility;
freedom
E) pleasure
principle; reality principle
114. The
importance of romance in marriage relationships is most likely to be emphasized
in cultures that value:
A) role
playing.
B) collectivism.
C) reciprocal
determinism.
D) individualism.
E) gender
stereotypes.
115. People
living in a culture that promotes individualism are more likely than those in
collectivist cultures to experience:
A) divorce.
B) loneliness.
C) homicide.
D) stress-related
diseases.
E) any
of the above.
116. Religious
and ethnic diversity are most likely to be appreciated in a culture that
values:
A) cooperation.
B) individualism.
C) reciprocal
determinism.
D) collectivism.
E) nationalism.
117. Parents
in collectivist cultures are more likely than parents in individualist cultures
to encourage teenage children to:
A) pick
out and purchase their own clothes.
B) participate
in household chores.
C) publicly
protest against repressive government policies.
D) establish
close friendships with ethnically diverse groups of people.
118. Humanistic
psychologists would most likely be criticized for underestimating the value of:
A) an
internal locus of control.
B) self-serving
bias.
C) social
influence.
D) the
Barnum effect.
E) individualism.
119. Maslow
most clearly interjected his own personal values into his study of
self-actualized individuals by:
A) selectively
studying people with qualities he admired.
B) interpreting
their flattering self-descriptions as a self-serving bias.
C) overemphasizing
the value of their loyalty to cultural norms.
D) assuming
that self-actualization usually takes priority over all other human motives.
120. The
humanistic perspective has been criticized for promoting an excessive degree
of:
A) sexism.
B) spiritualism.
C) nationalism.
D) individualism.
E) personality
testing.
121. Humanistic
theorists have been criticized for:
A) overestimating
the impact of childhood experiences on adult personality.
B) underestimating
the inconsistency of behavior from one situation to another.
C) overestimating
the degree of similarity among people.
D) underestimating
the inherent human capacity for destructive and evil behaviors.
122. The
humanistic perspective is to Maslow as the social-cognitive perspective is to:
A) Allport.
B) Rogers.
C) Adler.
D) Bandura.
E) Jung.
123. According
to Bandura, reciprocal determinism involves multidirectional influences among:
A) mind,
body, and behavior.
B) thoughts,
emotions, and actions.
C) behaviors,
internal personal factors, and environmental events.
D) id,
ego, and superego.
E) learned
helplessness, locus of control, and optimism.
124. Philip's
substandard academic performance is both a result and a cause of his feelings
of academic inferiority. This best illustrates the importance of:
A) self-serving
bias.
B) an
internal locus of control.
C) the
Barnum effect.
D) reciprocal
determinism.
E) reaction
formation.
125. Because
Mr. Renda trusts his employees, he treats them very kindly. His kindness leads
them to work diligently on his behalf, which in turn increases his trust in
them. This pattern of trust, kindness, diligence, and increasing trust illustrates
what is meant by:
A) reaction
formation.
B) the
Barnum effect.
C) displacement.
D) external
locus of control.
E) reciprocal
determinism.
126. Because
Greta is extremely extraverted, she frequently goes to parties where she is
encouraged to laugh and socialize. Because Jim is extremely introverted, he
frequently spends weekends in the library where it's easy to quietly reflect
and study. Greta and Jim best illustrate what is meant by:
A) an
external locus of control.
B) reciprocal
determinism.
C) the
self-serving bias.
D) the
Barnum effect.
E) reaction
formation.
127. The
perception that one's fate is determined by luck reflects:
A) reciprocal
determinism.
B) self-serving
bias.
C) an
external locus of control.
D) the
pleasure principle.
E) the
Barnum effect.
128. Hillary
believes that the questions on college tests are so unrelated to course work
that studying is useless. Hillary's belief most clearly illustrates:
A) reciprocal
determinism.
B) reaction
formation.
C) an
external locus of control.
D) the
Barnum effect.
E) displacement.
129. Katarina
fails to recognize any connection between her unsafe sexual practices and the
likelihood of contracting a sexually transmitted disease. Katarina's lack of
perceptiveness best illustrates the dangers of:
A) free
association.
B) an
Electra complex.
C) the
Barnum effect.
D) an
external locus of control.
E) unconditional
positive regard.
130. Cheyenne
believes that she will be highly successful in business if she works hard and
carefully manages her time. Her belief most clearly illustrates:
A) reaction
formation.
B) reciprocal
determinism.
C) unconditional
positive regard.
D) an
Electra complex.
E) an
internal locus of control.
131. Compared
to those with an external locus of control, people who perceive an internal
locus of control are more likely to:
A) be
introverted personalities.
B) give
others unconditional positive regard.
C) conform
to social pressure.
D) cope
effectively with stress.
132. An
individual who perceives an internal locus of control would most likely show
signs of a:
A) weak
id.
B) strong
id.
C) weak
ego.
D) strong
ego.
E) weak
superego.
133. Learned
helplessness is most likely to contribute to:
A) the
Barnum effect.
B) a
self-serving bias.
C) an
external locus of control.
D) unconditional
positive regard.
E) an
Oedipus complex.
134. Dogs
strapped into a harness and given repeated and unavoidable shocks developed:
A) a
fixation.
B) a
reaction formation.
C) learned
helplessness.
D) a
higher threshold of pain.
E) unrealistic
optimism.
135. After
experiencing inescapable brutalities as a prisoner in a Nazi concentration
camp, Mr. Silver became apathetic, stopped eating, and gave up all efforts to
physically survive the ordeal. Mr. Silver's reaction most clearly illustrates:
A) an
inferiority complex.
B) repression.
C) learned
helplessness.
D) an
internal locus of control.
E) reaction
formation.
136. Learned
helplessness is most likely to promote:
A) collectivism.
B) unconditional
positive regard.
C) an
internal locus of control.
D) the
Barnum effect.
E) pessimism.
137. The
best indicator of a person's level of optimism is his or her:
A) individualism.
B) ideal
self.
C) gender
identity.
D) attributional
style.
E) unconditional
positive regard.
138. Researchers
found that new life insurance representatives were less likely to quit during
their first year on the job if they demonstrated the trait of:
A) agreeableness.
B) openness.
C) extraversion.
D) optimism.
139. Martin
Seligman's positive psychology differs from humanistic perspective in that it:
A) denies
humankind's capacity for evil.
B) focuses
more on a person's interaction with the environment.
C) involves
the scientific study of optimal human functioning.
D) has
greater application in the educational setting.
140. An
unrealistic optimism about future life events could best be described as a(n):
A) Electra
complex.
B) self-serving
bias.
C) reaction
formation.
D) fixation.
E) external
locus of control.
141. Sexually
active undergraduate women perceive themselves as much less likely to
experience an unwanted pregnancy than other women at their university. This
best illustrates:
A) an
Electra complex.
B) low
self-esteem.
C) displacement.
D) the
Barnum effect.
E) unrealistic
optimism.
142. The
social-cognitive perspective suggests that the best way to predict a political
candidate's performance effectiveness after election is to assess that
individual's:
A) current
feelings of personal control.
B) specific
political goals for the future.
C) general
feelings of optimism about the future.
D) past
performance in situations involving similar responsibilities.
E) personality
traits as revealed by the MMPI-2.
143. The
social-cognitive perspective is least likely to be criticized for neglecting
the importance of:
A) environmental
influences.
B) unconscious
motives.
C) personality
traits.
D) genetic
influences.